From the arguments I have read it is not the scripture, per se, that they see as warped and patriarchal as much as it is the societies from which the scripture arose. I have actually read the argument that the authors of scripture could not address the issue of sexual orientation because nobody in their culture could conceive that something other than heterosexuality was possible. "It was so far out of their worldview," they say, "that they never even considered it." Yet, in order to support their position that homosexuality is natural, they have to maintain that there has always been a percentage of the population that is of that orientation. This group then is always portrayed as oppressed and suppressed. Homosexuals of the time, we are told, always had to hide their orientation, and so the ancients never noticed or addressed it.
This argument falls flat on two points. First, there is evidence of an awareness of homosexual orientation in the ancient world. Certainly they did not use those words, but that does not mean that the concept did not exist. Even more, we know that it was discussed. According to a "gay encyclopedia" (
http://www.glbtq.com/social-sciences/hadrian.html) the Emperor Hadrian was well known for his deep devotion to one particular male slave. The encyclopedia says it was not that both were men that was the issue, but the intensity of the love and devotion shown by Hadrian on the boy's death. If homosexuality is natural, as the glbt folks assure us it is, then the ancients, as the astute observers of their world they were, could not have failed to notice it--and it seems they did.
Second, when was the switch thrown? When did we suddenly become able to conceive of the idea of homosexuality as an orientation and not just a social activity? When was it suddenly not only okay to be gay, but the change in society was such that they could conceive of the presence of gays? Here, I have no answer. I keep my eyes open for any answer they may have to this question. I may have to explore the "gay encyclopedia" further to see how it addresses the issue.
"So," they say, "the scriptures cannot be faulted for simply being the products of the unenlightened societies from which they come. Still, they cannot be accepted as binding on us in those areas where our culture and understanding have surpassed those of the societies in which the authors wrote." In other words, "It's not Paul's fault he had such an incorrect view of human sexuality. Everyone did back then."
--P.S. Just to be clear, I am trying to portray the gltb viewpoint as I understand it in the above. I believe the Bible is completely true, being the product of the Holy Spirit guiding the writers. I believe "that it has God for its author, salvation for its end, and truth, without any mixture of error, for its matter." (to quote the 1925 Baptist Faith and Message)